Friday, June 30, 2017

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Share some CCDA 200-310 exam questions and answers below.
Which type of structure consists of the addressing, routing protocols, QoS, and security components? 
A. logical 
B. physical 
C. layered 
D. virtual 
Answer: A

Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance? 
A. recognizes users, their devices, and their roles in the network 
B. does not offer audit and reporting features 
C. must be placed inline with other network devices 
D. does not recognize guest users 
Answer: A

A remote user for a company must periodically connect to the company network to access internal resources using a company laptop with software that was preinstalled by the IT department. Which VPN method is used for connectivity? 
A. DMVPN 
B. SSL VPN 
C. IPsec VPN 
D. GET VPN 
Answer: C

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Which function must be selected on the Backup Archive Client GUI to display all backup files from the client stored on the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server? 
A. Set incremental display 
B. Display historic files 
C. Display active/inactive files 
D. Set progressive incremental 
Answer: C

What is the purpose of the tsmdlst tool? 
A. list SAN port used 
B. list all serial numbers and the WWPN for devices 
C. display the LUN device number 
D. configure the SAN adapter and HBA 
Answer: B

Where is the data presented that is collected by the client management service for backuparchive clients? 
A. view the Performance page in the Operations Center 
B. view the Backup-Archive Node page in the Operations Center 
C. view the Diagnosis page in the Operations Center 
D. view the STGpool page in the Operations Center 
Answer: C

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Thursday, June 29, 2017

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Share some Platform Engineer E20-624 exam questions and answers below.
What is the maximum number of drives supported by a VMAX 20K and 40K high density storage bay? 
A.120 
B. 200 
C. 240 
D. 400 
Answer: D

Which directory is used on the user laptop, in which the SymmWin script file "CreateProc.smp" is copied into, to install the Symmetrix Procedure Generator? 
A. symmwinuser 
B. symmwinbin 
C. symmwinnewcode 
D. symmwinscripts 
Answer: B

What is the maximum distance from System Bay 1 that a dual engine bay can be dispersed in a VMAX3 array configurations? 
A. 15 meters 
B. 20 meters 
C. 25 meters 
D. 30 meters 
Answer: C

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Share some Technology Architect E20-526 exam questions and answers below.
When using the XtremIO PoC Toolkit, what is the purpose of the Age phase? 
A. Continuously write to a specific range of logical block addresses to test Flash durability 
B. Overwrite each LUN multiple times to ensure they contain all unique data 
C. Test the performance of the All-Flash array with non-production static data 
D. Scatter writes across the entire array to simulate ordinary use of the system 
Answer: D

A user attempts to create a quorum disk for a host cluster. Volume parameters are: However, the volume creation fails. What caused the process to fail? 
A. Quorum disks cannot have an 8kB block size 
B. Volume size is too small 
C. Volume name is invalid 
D. XtremIO volumes cannot be quorum disks 
Answer: B

How should a storage administrator navigate to different XtremIO clusters from the XMS GUI if the administrator has more than one cluster managed by the same XMS? 
A. Click the Cluster Name on the Menu bar near the top of the screen 
B. Click the Inventory List button on the Menu bar 
C. Click the Administration tab and locate the Cluster Name 
D. Click the Cluster Name on the Status bar at the bottom of the screen 
Answer: B

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Wednesday, June 28, 2017

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Share some Cisco Business Value Practitioner 840-425 exam questions and answers below.
Which two options are true regarding a customer goal? (Choose two.) 
A. A goal is s a desirable business state. 
B. A goal is a future expected outcome or state. 
C. A goal is a milestone to reach. 
D. A goal is a decision or choice. 
E. A goal is a priority that makes a difference. 
Answer: A,B

Which two options are direct financial benefits of the business outcomes sales-based approach? (Choose two.) 
A. Reduced CAPEX and OPEX. 
B. Reduced CAPEX and increased OPEX. 
C. Increased NPV. 
D. Improved customer satisfaction. 
E. Enabled innovation and productivity 
Answer: A,C

How does IT contribute to facilitate the creation of a business strategy? 
A. By developing applications that represent a broad competitive advantage. 
B. With solutions that have unique functionality, focused in every area of the business. 
C. contracting services that help reduce costs and optimize the budget. 
D. using robust technology solutions throughout the organization. 
Answer: D

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Share some IBM Certified Technical Sales Specialist C9010-251 exam questions and answers below.
What would improve overall utilization of physical memory resources by allowing a group of partitions to share a pool of physics memory resources? 
A. Active Memory Expansion 
PowerHA Enterprise Edition 
B. Active Memory Sharing 
PowerVM Standard Edition 
C. Active Memory Sharing 
PowerVM Enterprise Edition 
D. Active Memory Mirroring 
PowerVM Standard Edition 
Answer: C

Which of the following Power Scale-Out operating systems includes integrated database and middleware components? 
A. Ubuntu 
B. SUSE 
C. AIX 
D. IBM i 
Answer: D

A client would like to use Power servers to reliably manage large volumes of structured and unstructured data using the Hadoop open source framework. Which IBM offering will satisfy their requirement? 
A. IBM Infosphere Clinical Analytics 
B. IBM Infosphere Streams 
C. IBM Infosphere Master Data Management 
D. IBM Infosphere BigInsights 
Answer: D

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Tuesday, June 27, 2017

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Share some Cisco Business Value Specialist 820-424 exam questions and answers below.
Which two options are qualities of the guardian stakeholder decision making style? (Choose two.) 
A. Formal process 
B. Fact-based 
C. Cautious 
D. Middle-of-the-road 
Answer: B,C

Which option is a trend, driving the adoption of an outcome-based sales approach? 
A. Customers have more purely technical problems than they have had previously 
B. Customers want to focus less on business needs and more on business outcomes 
C. Customers are more empowered and skeptical, changing the way they assess and purchase technology 
D. The increase in major technology innovations has led to a more siloed approach to technology purchasing 
Answer: C

Which option is a technology innovation benefit resulting from defined outcomes? 
A. Lower IT support costs (TCO) 
B. Higher IT asset utilization 
C. Faster time to market for new products 
D. Faster ROI for IT 
Answer: D

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Share some MCP 70-713 exam questions and answers below.
A SAM partner plans to review the existing SAM implementation for an organization. You need to collect inventory information and verify license compliance for installed Microsoft products. What should you install? 
A. Windows Intune 
B. Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit (MAP) 
C. System Center Configuration Manager (ConfigMgr) 
D. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) 
Answer: B

You are implementing a SAM program for on organization. You plan to reconcile software license entitlements with software inventory. The solution must support Windows client Operating systems and minimize infrastructure costs. You need to configure a license reconciliation solution. What should you install on the desktop computers? 
A. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) 
B. System Center Configuration Manager (ConfigMgr) agents 
C. Microsoft Intune agents 
D. System Center Operations Manager (OpsMgr) agents 
Answer: B

An organization is implementing a SAM program. The organization is focused on achieving Tier 1 of the ISO 19770-1 specification. You need to verity that contracts are reported on and inventoried. What should you include in the report? 
A. the last reported hardware inventory date 
B. any approved exceptions to the contracts 
C. contracts that do not match billing statements 
D. the last reported software inventory date 
Answer: D

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Monday, June 26, 2017

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Share some CCIE Security 400-251 exam questions and answers below.
Which three statements are true regarding RFC 5176 (Change of Authorization)? (Choose three.) 
A. It defines a mechanism to allow a RADIUS server to initiate a communication inbound to a NAD. 
B. It defines a wide variety of authorization actions, including "reauthenticate." 
C. It defines the format for a Change of Authorization packet. 
D. It defines a DM. 
E. It specifies that TCP port 3799 be used for transport of Change of Authorization packets. 
Answer: A, C, D

Which two statements describe the Cisco TrustSec system correctly? (Choose two.) 
A. The Cisco TrustSec system is a partner program, where Cisco certifies third-party security products as extensions to the secure infrastructure. 
B. The Cisco TrustSec system is an approach to certifying multimedia and collaboration applications as secure. 
C. The Cisco TrustSec system is an Advanced Network Access Control System that leverages enforcement intelligence in the network infrastructure. 
D. The Cisco TrustSec system tests and certifies all products and product versions that make up the system as working together in a validated manner. 
Answer: C, D 

Which three statements are true regarding Security Group Tags? (Choose three.) 
A. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as a separate authorization result. 
B. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as part of a standard authorization profile. 
C. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result using Cisco ACS 5.x. 
D. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result for 802.1X, MAC Authentication Bypass, and WebAuth methods of authentication. 
E. A Security Group Tag is a variable length string that is returned as an authorization result. 
Answer: A, C, D

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